[Q21-Q42] Updated Nov-2024 Exam Engine or PDF for the CAS-005 Tests Free Updated Today!

Updated Nov-2024 Exam Engine or PDF for the CAS-005 Tests Free Updated Today!

Ultimate Guide to Prepare CAS-005 with Accurate PDF Questions

NEW QUESTION # 21
A company isolated its OT systems from other areas of the corporate network These systems are required to report usage information over the internet to the vendor Which oi the following b*st reduces the risk of compromise or sabotage' (Select two).

A. Encrypting data at rest
B. Executing daily health checks
C. Performing boot Integrity checks
D. Implementing allow lists
E. Monitoring network behavior
F. Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN

Answer: D,F

Explanation:
* A. Implementing allow lists: Allow lists (whitelisting) restrict network communication to only authorized devices and applications, significantly reducing the attack surface by ensuring that only pre-approved traffic is permitted.
* F. Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN: A site-to-site VPN provides a secure, encrypted tunnel for data transmission between the OT systems and the vendor, protecting the data from interception and tampering during transit.
Other options:
* B. Monitoring network behavior: While useful for detecting anomalies, it does not proactively reduce the risk of compromise or sabotage.
* C. Encrypting data at rest: Important for protecting data stored on devices, but does not address network communication risks.
* D. Performing boot integrity checks: Ensures the integrity of the system at startup but does not protect ongoing network communications.
* E. Executing daily health checks: Useful for maintaining system health but does not directly reduce the risk of network-based compromise or sabotage.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-82, "Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security"
* "Industrial Network Security" by Eric D. Knapp and Joel Thomas Langill

NEW QUESTION # 22
A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:
* The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.
* The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen
to port 4022.
* The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a Single
workstation.
* All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.
* All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight
days.
* All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.
* Cleartext services are not allowed.
* All devices must be hardened when possible.
Instructions:
Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.
Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the pOSTGREsql DATABASE VIA ssh

WAP A

PC A

Laptop A

Switch A

Switch B:

Laptop B

PC B

PC C

Server A

Answer:

Explanation:
See the Explanation below for the solution.
Explanation:
WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic
This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.
Laptop A: Patch management
This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.
Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Laptop B: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.
PC B: Enable disk encryption
This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B's data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.
PC C: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:
sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config
Server A. Need to select the following:
A black and white screen with white text Description automatically generated

NEW QUESTION # 23
After some employees were caught uploading data to online personal storage accounts, a company becomes concerned about data leaks related to sensitive, internal documentation. Which of the following would the company most likely do to decrease this type of risk?

A. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms
B. Implement a cloud-access security broker
C. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains
D. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is a security policy enforcement point placed between cloud service consumers and cloud service providers to combine and interject enterprise security policies as cloud-based resources are accessed. Implementing a CASB provides several benefits:
* A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms: This can help but is not as effective or comprehensive as a CASB.
* B. Implement a cloud-access security broker: A CASB can provide visibility into cloud application usage, enforce data security policies, and protect against data leaks by monitoring and controlling access to cloud services. It also provides advanced features like data encryption, data loss prevention (DLP), and compliance monitoring.
* C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms: This helps in monitoring but does not prevent data leaks.
* D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains: This can block access to specific sites but lacks the granular control and visibility provided by a CASB.
Implementing a CASB is the most comprehensive solution to decrease the risk of data leaks by providing visibility, control, and enforcement of security policies for cloud services.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* Gartner, "Magic Quadrant for Cloud Access Security Brokers"
* NIST SP 800-144, "Guidelines on Security and Privacy in Public Cloud Computing"

NEW QUESTION # 24
After remote desktop capabilities were deployed in the environment, various vulnerabilities were noticed.
* Exfiltration of intellectual property
* Unencrypted files
* Weak user passwords
Which of the following is the best way to mitigate these vulnerabilities? (Select two).

A. Deploying directory-based group policies
B. Implementing a CMDB platform
C. Implementing a version control system
D. Implementing data loss prevention
E. Enabling modem authentication that supports MFA
F. Restricting access to critical file services only
G. Deploying file integrity monitoring

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
To mitigate the identified vulnerabilities, the following solutions are most appropriate:
* A. Implementing data loss prevention (DLP): DLP solutions help prevent the unauthorized transfer of data outside the organization. This directly addresses the exfiltration of intellectual property by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data transfers.
* E. Enabling modern authentication that supports Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA): This significantly enhances security by requiring additional verification methods beyond just passwords. It addresses the issue of weak user passwords by making it much harder for unauthorized users to gain access, even if they obtain the password.
Other options, while useful in specific contexts, do not address all the vulnerabilities mentioned:
* B. Deploying file integrity monitoring helps detect changes to files but does not prevent data exfiltration or address weak passwords.
* C. Restricting access to critical file services improves security but is not comprehensive enough to mitigate all identified vulnerabilities.
* D. Deploying directory-based group policies can enforce security policies but might not directly prevent data exfiltration or ensure strong authentication.
* F. Implementing a version control system helps manage changes to files but is not a security measure for preventing the identified vulnerabilities.
* G. Implementing a CMDB platform (Configuration Management Database) helps manage IT assets but does not address the specific security issues mentioned.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"
* CIS Controls, "Control 13: Data Protection" and "Control 16: Account Monitoring and Control"

NEW QUESTION # 25
A security engineer wants to reduce the attack surface of a public-facing containerized application Which of the following will best reduce the application's privilege escalation attack surface?

A. Running the container in an isolated network and placing a load balancer in a public-facing network.Adding the following ACL to the load balancer:PZRKZI HTTES from 0-0.0.0.0/0 pert 443
B. Installing an EDR on the container's host with reporting configured to log to a centralized SIFM and Implementing the following alerting rules TF PBOCESS_USEB=rooC ALERT_TYPE=critical
C. Designing a muiticontainer solution, with one set of containers that runs the mam application, and another set oi containers that perform automatic remediation by replacing compromised containers or disabling compromised accounts
D. Implementing the following commands in the Dockerfile:
RUN echo user:x:1000:1000iuser:/home/user:/dew/null > /ete/passwd

Answer: D

Explanation:
Implementing the given commands in the Dockerfile ensures that the container runs with non-root user privileges. Running applications as a non-root user reduces the risk of privilege escalation attacks because even if an attacker compromises the application, they would have limited privileges and would not be able to perform actions that require root access.
* A. Implementing the following commands in the Dockerfile: This directly addresses the privilege escalation attack surface by ensuring the application does not run with elevated privileges.
* B. Installing an EDR on the container's host: While useful for detecting threats, this does not reduce the privilege escalation attack surface within the containerized application.
* C. Designing a multi-container solution: While beneficial for modularity and remediation, it does not specifically address privilege escalation.
* D. Running the container in an isolated network: This improves network security but does not directly reduce the privilege escalation attack surface.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* Docker documentation on security best practices
* NIST SP 800-190, "Application Container Security Guide"

NEW QUESTION # 26
A security engineer is developing a solution to meet the following requirements?
* All endpoints should be able to establish telemetry with a SIEM.
* All endpoints should be able to be integrated into the XDR platform.
* SOC services should be able to monitor the XDR platform
Which of the following should the security engineer implement to meet the requirements?

A. CDR and central logging
B. WAF and syslog
C. HIDS and vTPM
D. HIPS and host-based firewall

Answer: D

Explanation:
To meet the requirements of having all endpoints establish telemetry with a SIEM, integrate into an XDR platform, and allow SOC services to monitor the XDR platform, the best approach is to implement Host Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS) and a host-based firewall. HIPS can provide detailed telemetry data to the SIEM and can be integrated into the XDR platform for comprehensive monitoring and response. The host-based firewall ensures that only authorized traffic is allowed, providing an additional layer of security.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes the roles of HIPS and host-based firewalls in endpoint security and their integration with SIEM and XDR platforms.
* NIST Special Publication 800-94, "Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS)":
Highlights the capabilities of HIPS for security monitoring and incident response.
* "Network Security Monitoring" by Richard Bejtlich: Discusses the integration of various security tools, including HIPS and firewalls, for effective security monitoring.

NEW QUESTION # 27
You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from company's privileged network.
The company's hardening guidelines indicate the following:
There should be one primary server or service per device.
Only default ports should be used.
Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed.
For each device found by Nmap, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information:
The IP address of the device
The primary server or service of the device (Note that each IP should by associated with one service/port only) The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines (Note that multiple ports may need to be closed to comply with the hardening guidelines) If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer:

Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation:
10.1.45.65 SFTP Server Disable 8080
10.1.45.66 Email Server Disable 415 and 443
10.1.45.67 Web Server Disable 21, 80
10.1.45.68 UTM Appliance Disable 21

NEW QUESTION # 28
A compliance officer is reviewing the data sovereignty laws in several countries where the organization has no presence Which of the following is the most likely reason for reviewing these laws?

A. The organization has suffered brand reputation damage from incorrect media coverage
B. The organization is concerned with new regulatory enforcement in other countries
C. The organization is performing due diligence of potential tax issues.
D. The organization has been subject to legal proceedings in countries where it has a presence.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reviewing data sovereignty laws in countries where the organization has no presence is likely due to concerns about regulatory enforcement. Data sovereignty laws dictate how data can be stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Understanding these laws is crucial for compliance, especially if the organization handles data that may be subject to foreign regulations.
* A. The organization is performing due diligence of potential tax issues: This is less likely as tax issues are generally not directly related to data sovereignty laws.
* B. The organization has been subject to legal proceedings in countries where it has a presence:
While possible, this does not explain the focus on countries where the organization has no presence.
* C. The organization is concerned with new regulatory enforcement in other countries: This is the
* most likely reason. New regulations could impact the organization's operations, especially if they involve data transfers or processing data from these countries.
* D. The organization has suffered brand reputation damage from incorrect media coverage: This is less relevant to the need for reviewing data sovereignty laws.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* GDPR and other global data protection regulations
* "Data Sovereignty: The Future of Data Protection?" by Mark Burdon

NEW QUESTION # 29
A security team is responding to malicious activity and needs to determine the scope of impact the malicious activity appears to affect certain version of an application used by the organization Which of the following actions best enables the team to determine the scope of Impact?

A. Performing a port scan
B. Inspecting egress network traffic
C. Analyzing user behavior
D. Reviewing the asset inventory

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reviewing the asset inventory allows the security team to identify all instances of the affected application versions within the organization. By knowing which systems are running the vulnerable versions, the team can assess the full scope of the impact, determine which systems might be compromised, and prioritize them for further investigation and remediation.
Performing a port scan (Option A) might help identify open ports but does not provide specific information about the application versions. Inspecting egress network traffic (Option B) and analyzing user behavior (Option D) are important steps in the incident response process but do not directly identify which versions of the application are affected.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
* CIS Controls, "Control 1: Inventory and Control of Hardware Assets" and "Control 2: Inventory and Control of Software Assets"

NEW QUESTION # 30
A company that relies on an COL system must keep it operating until a new solution is available Which of the following is the most secure way to meet this goal?

A. Placing the system in a screened subnet and blocking access from internal resources
B. Enforcing strong credentials and improving monitoring capabilities
C. Isolating the system and enforcing firewall rules to allow access to only required endpoints
D. Restricting system access to perform necessary maintenance by the IT team

Answer: C

Explanation:
To ensure the most secure way of keeping a legacy system (COL) operating until a new solution is available, isolating the system and enforcing strict firewall rules is the best approach. This method minimizes the attack surface by restricting access to only the necessary endpoints, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential security breaches. Isolating the system ensures that it is not exposed to the broader network, while firewall rules control the traffic that can reach the system, providing a secure environment until a replacement is implemented.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Recommends network isolation and firewall rules as effective measures for securing legacy systems.
* NIST Special Publication 800-82, "Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security": Advises on isolating critical systems and using firewalls to control access.
* "Network Security Assessment" by Chris McNab: Discusses techniques for isolating systems and enforcing firewall rules to protect vulnerable or legacy systems.
By isolating the system and implementing strict firewall controls, the organization can maintain the necessary operations securely while working on deploying a new solution.

NEW QUESTION # 31
Developers have been creating and managing cryptographic material on their personal laptops fix use in production environment. A security engineer needs to initiate a more secure process. Which of the following is the best strategy for the engineer to use?

A. Managing secrets on the vTPM hardware
B. Managing key material on a HSM
C. Employing shielding lo prevent LMI
D. Disabling the BIOS and moving to UEFI

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best strategy for securely managing cryptographic material is to use a Hardware Security Module (HSM).
Here's why:
* Security and Integrity: HSMs are specialized hardware devices designed to protect and manage digital keys. They provide high levels of physical and logical security, ensuring that cryptographic material is well protected against tampering and unauthorized access.
* Centralized Key Management: Using HSMs allows for centralized management of cryptographic keys, reducing the risks associated with decentralized and potentially insecure key storage practices, such as on personal laptops.
* Compliance and Best Practices: HSMs comply with various industry standards and regulations (such as FIPS 140-2) for secure key management. This ensures that the organization adheres to best practices and meets compliance requirements.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-57: Recommendation for Key Management
* ISO/IEC 19790:2012: Information Technology - Security Techniques - Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules

NEW QUESTION # 32
A security administrator needs to automate alerting. The server generates structured log files that need to be parsed to determine whether an alarm has been triggered Given the following code function:

Which of the following is most likely the log input that the code will parse?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The code function provided in the question seems to be designed to parse JSON formatted logs to check for an alarm state. Option A is a JSON format that matches the structure likely expected by the code. The presence of the "error_log" and "InAlarmState" keys suggests that this is the correct input format.

NEW QUESTION # 33
A security analyst is reviewing the following authentication logs:

Which of the following should the analyst do first?

A. Disable User12's account
B. Disable User8's account
C. Disable User2's account
D. Disable User1's account

Answer: D

Explanation:
Based on the provided authentication logs, we observe that User1's account experienced multiple failed login attempts within a very short time span (at 8:01:23 AM on 12/15). This pattern indicates a potential brute-force attack or an attempt to gain unauthorized access. Here's a breakdown of why disabling User1's account is the appropriate first step:
* Failed Login Attempts: The logs show that User1 had four consecutive failed login attempts:
* VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
* VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
* VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
* VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
* Security Protocols and Best Practices: According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, multiple failed login attempts within a short timeframe should trigger an immediate response to prevent further potential unauthorized access attempts. This typically involves temporarily disabling the account to stop ongoing brute-force attacks.
* Account Lockout Policy: Implementing an account lockout policy is a standard practice to thwart brute-force attacks. Disabling User1's account will align with these best practices and prevent further failed attempts, which might lead to successful unauthorized access if not addressed.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives
* NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines
By addressing User1's account first, we effectively mitigate the immediate threat of a brute-force attack, ensuring that further investigation can be conducted without the risk of unauthorized access continuing during the investigation period.

NEW QUESTION # 34
Users are experiencing a variety of issues when trying to access corporate resources examples include
* Connectivity issues between local computers and file servers within branch offices
* Inability to download corporate applications on mobile endpoints wtiilc working remotely
* Certificate errors when accessing internal web applications
Which of the following actions are the most relevant when troubleshooting the reported issues? (Select two).

A. Review VPN throughput
B. Implement advanced WAF rules.
C. Restore static content on lite CDN.
D. Enable secure authentication using NAC
E. Validate MDM asset compliance
F. Check IPS rules

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
The reported issues suggest problems related to network connectivity, remote access, and certificate management:
* A. Review VPN throughput: Connectivity issues and the inability to download applications while working remotely may be due to VPN bandwidth or performance issues. Reviewing and optimizing VPN throughput can help resolve these problems by ensuring that remote users have adequate bandwidth for accessing corporate resources.
* F. Validate MDM asset compliance: Mobile Device Management (MDM) systems ensure that mobile endpoints comply with corporate security policies. Validating MDM compliance can help address issues related to the inability to download applications and certificate errors, as non-compliant devices might be blocked from accessing certain resources.
* B. Check IPS rules: While important for security, IPS rules are less likely to directly address the connectivity and certificate issues described.
* C. Restore static content on the CDN: This action is related to content delivery but does not address VPN or certificate-related issues.
* D. Enable secure authentication using NAC: Network Access Control (NAC) enhances security but does not directly address the specific issues described.
* E. Implement advanced WAF rules: Web Application Firewalls protect web applications but do not address VPN throughput or mobile device compliance.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-77, "Guide to IPsec VPNs"
* CIS Controls, "Control 11: Secure Configuration for Network Devices"

NEW QUESTION # 35
A systems administrator works with engineers to process and address vulnerabilities as a result of continuous scanning activities. The primary challenge faced by the administrator is differentiating between valid and invalid findings. Which of the following would the systems administrator most likely verify is properly configured?

A. Scanning credentials
B. Exploit definitions
C. Testing cadence
D. Report retention time

Answer: A

Explanation:
When differentiating between valid and invalid findings from vulnerability scans, the systems administrator should verify that the scanning credentials are properly configured. Valid credentials ensure that the scanner can authenticate and access the systems being evaluated, providing accurate and comprehensive results.
Without proper credentials, scans may miss vulnerabilities or generate false positives, making it difficult to prioritize and address the findings effectively.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Highlights the importance of using valid credentials for accurate vulnerability scanning.
* "Vulnerability Management" by Park Foreman: Discusses the role of scanning credentials in obtaining accurate scan results and minimizing false positives.
* "The Art of Network Security Monitoring" by Richard Bejtlich: Covers best practices for configuring and using vulnerability scanning tools, including the need for valid credentials.

NEW QUESTION # 36
A company that uses containers to run its applications is required to identify vulnerabilities on every container image in a private repository The security team needs to be able to quickly evaluate whether to respond to a given vulnerability Which of the following, will allow the security team to achieve the objective with the last effort?

A. SAST scan reports
B. Centralized SBoM
C. CIS benchmark compliance reports
D. Credentialed vulnerability scan

Answer: B

Explanation:
A centralized Software Bill of Materials (SBoM) is the best solution for identifying vulnerabilities in container images in a private repository. An SBoM provides a comprehensive inventory of all components, dependencies, and their versions within a container image, facilitating quick evaluation and response to vulnerabilities.
Why Centralized SBoM?
* Comprehensive Inventory: An SBoM lists all software components, including their versions and dependencies, allowing for thorough vulnerability assessments.
* Quick Identification: Centralizing SBoM data enables rapid identification of affected containers when a vulnerability is disclosed.
* Automation: SBoMs can be integrated into automated tools for continuous monitoring and alerting of vulnerabilities.
* Regulatory Compliance: Helps in meeting compliance requirements by providing a clear and auditable record of all software components used.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of comprehensive and efficient vulnerability management:
* A. SAST scan reports: Focuses on static analysis of code but may not cover all components in container images.
* C. CIS benchmark compliance reports: Ensures compliance with security benchmarks but does not provide detailed component inventory.
* D. Credentialed vulnerability scan: Useful for in-depth scans but may not be as efficient for quick vulnerability evaluation.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* "Software Bill of Materials (SBoM)," NIST Documentation
* "Managing Container Security with SBoM," OWASP

NEW QUESTION # 37
An organization wants to manage specialized endpoints and needs a solution that provides the ability to
* Centrally manage configurations
* Push policies.
* Remotely wipe devices
* Maintain asset inventory
Which of the following should the organization do to best meet these requirements?

A. Implement a mobile device management solution.
B. Configure contextual policy management
C. Deploy a software asset manager
D. Use a configuration management database

Answer: A

Explanation:
To meet the requirements of centrally managing configurations, pushing policies, remotely wiping devices, and maintaining an asset inventory, the best solution is to implement a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution.
MDM Capabilities:
* Central Management: MDM allows administrators to manage the configurations of all devices from a central console.
* Policy Enforcement: MDM solutions enable the push of security policies and updates to ensure compliance across all managed devices.
* Remote Wipe: In case a device is lost or stolen, MDM provides the capability to remotely wipe the device to protect sensitive data.
* Asset Inventory: MDM maintains an up-to-date inventory of all managed devices, including their configurations and installed applications.
Other options do not provide the same comprehensive capabilities required for managing specialized endpoints.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-124 Revision 1, "Guidelines for Managing the Security of Mobile Devices in the Enterprise"
* "Mobile Device Management Overview," Gartner Research

NEW QUESTION # 38
An audit finding reveals that a legacy platform has not retained loos for more than 30 days The platform has been segmented due to its interoperability with newer technology. As a temporary solution, the IT department changed the log retention to 120 days. Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure the logs are being properly retained?

A. Configure event-based triggers to export the logs at a threshold.
B. Configure a scheduled task nightly to save the logs
C. Configure a Python script to move the logs into a SQL database.
D. Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs

Answer: D

Explanation:
To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of SIEM in log management and retention.
* NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Recommends the use of centralized log management solutions, such as SIEM, for effective log retention and analysis.
* "Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Covers best practices for configuring SIEM systems to aggregate and retain logs from various sources.

NEW QUESTION # 39
A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment. Which of the following is the best solution?

A. Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set
B. Performing updates on code libraries before code development
C. Configuring branch protection rules and dependency checks
D. Using an application vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production

Answer: A

Explanation:
To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool's checks are appropriate for the application's context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments.
* "Secure Coding: Principles and Practices" by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives.
* OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.

NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is the main reason quantum computing advancements are leading companies and countries to deploy new encryption algorithms?

A. Zero Trust security architectures will require homomorphic encryption.
B. Encryption systems based on large prime numbers will be vulnerable to exploitation
C. Perfect forward secrecy will prevent deployment of advanced firewall monitoring techniques
D. Quantum computers will enable malicious actors to capture IP traffic in real time

Answer: B

Explanation:
Advancements in quantum computing pose a significant threat to current encryption systems, especially those based on the difficulty of factoring large prime numbers, such as RSA. Quantum computers have the potential to solve these problems exponentially faster than classical computers, making current cryptographic systems vulnerable.
Why Large Prime Numbers are Vulnerable:
* Shor's Algorithm: Quantum computers can use Shor's algorithm to factorize large integers efficiently, which undermines the security of RSA encryption.
* Cryptographic Breakthrough: The ability to quickly factor large prime numbers means that encrypted data, which relies on the hardness of this mathematical problem, can be decrypted.
Other options, while relevant, do not capture the primary reason for the shift towards new encryption algorithms:
* B. Zero Trust security architectures: While important, the shift to homomorphic encryption is not the main driver for new encryption algorithms.
* C. Perfect forward secrecy: It enhances security but is not the main reason for new encryption algorithms.
* D. Real-time IP traffic capture: Quantum computers pose a more significant threat to the underlying cryptographic algorithms than to the real-time capture of traffic.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-208, "Recommendation for Stateful Hash-Based Signature Schemes"
* "Quantum Computing and Cryptography," MIT Technology Review

NEW QUESTION # 41

An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the following scenarios and instructions. Match each relevant finding to the affected host.
After associating scenario 3 with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.
Each finding may be used more than once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simul-ation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
A computer screen shot of a diagram Description automatically generated

A screenshot of a computer error Description automatically generated